DATA interpretation on coagulation

A 44 year old man presents with dyspnoea and is diagnosed as having multiple pulmonary emboli on CTPA. He is commenced on heparin 1000 units/hr after a 5000 unit bolus. During the night his heparin has increased to 1500 units/hr. The blood results are from the next morning:

PT 12, APTT 38.3
Fibrinogen 3.8g/L
D-dimer (latex immunoassay) > 20.0 mgh/ml (normal < 0.5)

1. Give two reasons for the low APTT despite heparin
2. List causes for an increased predisposition to venous thromboembolic disease?

Answer 1
Inadequate heparinisation, AT-III deficiency, increased heparin clearance, increased heparin binding proteins

Note: Heparin resistance is a term used to describe patients who require unusually high doses of heparin (>35,000u/day), and can be attributable to antithrombin deficiency, increased heparin clearance, elevation in heparin-binding proteins, elevation in factor VIII, and elevation of fibrinogen.
Heparin protocols are more effective in achieving goal in anticoagulation than ad hoc approach.

Heparin is a natural gycosaminoglycan that is extracted from procine intestinal mucosa. Intravenous administration results in immediate onset of action with t1/2 of 60secs-90 minutes. Liver and renal disease results in prolonged t1/2. When heparin combine with antithrombin III (heparin cofactor), thrombosis is blocked through inactivation of activated factor II, IX, X, XI and XII. Heparin also binds to platelets, both inhibiting and promoting their function.
Coagulation test findings: increased APTT, mildly increased PT, increased TCT, normal protamine corrected APTT test, normal reptilase time
TCT: thrombin clotting time -   test of the traditional final common pathway of the coagulation cascade which converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Reptilase time - assist with the differentiation of causes of an increased TCT. Reptilase is a thrombin -like molecule that converts fibrinogen to fibrin but is not inhibited by antithrombin III.
Protamine corrected APTT: the APTT after protamin is added to the patient's blood.


Answer 2
1. anti-thrombin III deficiency
2. protein C and S deficiency
3. Factor V Leiden gene mutation
4. Lupus anticoagulation and anti-cardiolipin
5. malignancy
6. hyperhomocysteinemia

QUESTION 2

A 54 year old man post CABG is bleeding briskly into the chest drains
INR 1.4, PT 16, APTT 55, TT 17, fibrinogen 1.2 and Platelet 65

1. How would you correct this man's coagulation?
Answer: The TT is normal, so coagulopathy is not due to heparin. Consumptive or dilutional coagulopathy and needs platelets, FFP, and cryoprecipitate.

QUESTION 3

A 24 year old woman has the following haematology and coagulation profile post admission to ICU after post partum haemorrhage.
WCC 5.6, Hb 6g/dL, Platelts 30, PT 30.6, APTT > 150, fibrinogen 0.8, D-Dimer > 10 (normal < 0.4)
1. What is the likely cause of these abnormalities?
Answer: DIC
2. In this context list 3 likely causes of this coagulation profile
-preeclampsia, AF embolism, sepsis
-intrauterine fetal death
-massive or mismatched transfusion
3. What does an elevated D-dimer indicate?
Answer: Tests fibrinolysis (breakdown of the X linked fibrin)

QUESTION 4

A 54 year old woman presented to the ED after having been unwell for 4 days. Her FBC report is:
Hb 12.8 g/dL, WBC 56.5, Platelet 347, Hct 41.4%
Neutrophil 96.3%
Lymphocyte 2.8%
Mono 0.7%, Eosin 0.1%, Baso 0.1%
Moderate rouleaux. Marked neutrophilia. Dohle bodies present, toxic granulation present.
1. What likely hematological process is revealed by the abnormal white cell count?
Answer: Acute leukemoid reaction.
-> 50,000 cells, normal baso and eosinophil counts, Dohle bodies, toxic granulation